Q: Today you answered “probably not” to my question about whether ETFs that track the S&P 500 are more risky than mid-cap ETFs which are trading at their historical values. However, your reasoning — that the S&P 500’s valuation is not excessively high given expected earnings growth and potential lower interest rates, and that investors tend to favour large-cap stocks over mid-caps in uncertain markets — seems to suggest the opposite conclusion.
Could you clarify whether you meant “probably yes” instead?
Could you also indicate if your answer differs if one's time frame is 10 years+?
Could you clarify whether you meant “probably yes” instead?
Could you also indicate if your answer differs if one's time frame is 10 years+?