Q: Dear 5i,
If one were to hold VFV and VSP for an infinite period of time and assume MER's were the same and effects of currency were neutral.
Is it reasonable to assume VFV would outperform VSP by approximately 1% because of hedging costs? If not, can you help explain.
If one were to hold VFV and VSP for an infinite period of time and assume MER's were the same and effects of currency were neutral.
Is it reasonable to assume VFV would outperform VSP by approximately 1% because of hedging costs? If not, can you help explain.