Q: My question concerns a robust method to estimate free cash flow.I have been running some calculations as part of my investment process and I make use of Free Cash Flow extensively in my models.
Usually I just use Operating Cash Flow - average of last five years CapEx. However in many cases such as GIL there are large variations in working capital from one year to the next. Management can boost operating and free cash flow by reducing working capital in the short run. This is a one-off rather than permanent boost to cash flow and can give a misleading measure of sustainable cash flows. The opposite is also true and management can make short term investments.
Some authors recommend removing changes in working capital from the calculation and defining free cash flow as Post-tax profit + Depreciation and amortization - stay in business CapEx. The stay in business CapEx is then estimated as the greater of the average of last five years CapEx or 120% of depreciation. Sometimes this adjusted definition of Free Cash Flow is also called owner earnings or Cash Profits.
With respect to GIL this approach certainly seems to give a much better free cash flow figure, but I wonder if this is wishful thinking? Is a company that over five years or more has to constantly deplete its working capital really showing us that it actually has a higher CapEx requirement? I would appreciate your comments.
Usually I just use Operating Cash Flow - average of last five years CapEx. However in many cases such as GIL there are large variations in working capital from one year to the next. Management can boost operating and free cash flow by reducing working capital in the short run. This is a one-off rather than permanent boost to cash flow and can give a misleading measure of sustainable cash flows. The opposite is also true and management can make short term investments.
Some authors recommend removing changes in working capital from the calculation and defining free cash flow as Post-tax profit + Depreciation and amortization - stay in business CapEx. The stay in business CapEx is then estimated as the greater of the average of last five years CapEx or 120% of depreciation. Sometimes this adjusted definition of Free Cash Flow is also called owner earnings or Cash Profits.
With respect to GIL this approach certainly seems to give a much better free cash flow figure, but I wonder if this is wishful thinking? Is a company that over five years or more has to constantly deplete its working capital really showing us that it actually has a higher CapEx requirement? I would appreciate your comments.