Q: I get the impression that, even while the price of oil-versus-natural-gas producers have declined in parallel because of overproduction, their underlying market dynamics are distinct and de-coupled. Oil prices have collapsed because (a) oil is something you can (mostly) move around, so prices are set globally; and (b) some OPEC producers realized that, by selling even more oil, they might take market share from higher-cost North American producers.
Gas prices, on the other hand, have collapsed because (a) gas is harder to move around, so prices are set more locally; and (b) too much gas is being produced specifically for the North America market. This matters (or should) because, for example, even were Saudi Arabia finally to cut back on oil production, this should not, in theory, provide any boost for natural gas producers.
But, in any case, the price of natural gas itself isn't that different, now, than in 2011 or 2012 - so what is the economic rationality for penalizing domestic natural gas producers for market dynamics that should be limited to oil? More specifically, why should the market capitalizations of ARC, Tourmaline, Pine Cliff, and so on, track the price of oil when they (mostly) don't compete in that market?
Gas prices, on the other hand, have collapsed because (a) gas is harder to move around, so prices are set more locally; and (b) too much gas is being produced specifically for the North America market. This matters (or should) because, for example, even were Saudi Arabia finally to cut back on oil production, this should not, in theory, provide any boost for natural gas producers.
But, in any case, the price of natural gas itself isn't that different, now, than in 2011 or 2012 - so what is the economic rationality for penalizing domestic natural gas producers for market dynamics that should be limited to oil? More specifically, why should the market capitalizations of ARC, Tourmaline, Pine Cliff, and so on, track the price of oil when they (mostly) don't compete in that market?