Q: Just trying to understand this type of instrument. Why would PGIC drop from $90 in 2006 to $4 in 2010 and then trade between $17 and $4 up to 2025? I don;t need specifics, just a general answer would do. Thanks.
Further to my last question on PGIC, (you may have covered this), why would this not recover after 2010 with the rest of the market?
Further to my last question on PGIC, (you may have covered this), why would this not recover after 2010 with the rest of the market?